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Home > General > The Cantina > is .1-.2 fouls / game statistically significant ?

is .1-.2 fouls / game statistically significant ?

 
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Aske
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is .1-.2 fouls / game statistically significant ?
« on: May 02, 2007, 08:57:49 AM »
http://sportsillustrated....refereebias.ap/index.html
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spacey
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Re: is .1-.2 fouls / game statistically significant ?
« Reply #1 on: May 02, 2007, 09:06:44 AM »
Statistics can say anything you want them to say. Depending on our agenda, couldn't we just as easily say the study shows that black refs are more lenient on black players? Either way, I don't view it as a statistically valid finding, let alone significant in any way. Over the course of 5 games a black guy might get as many as one more foul from an all white crew than a mixed race crew?  Sleepy
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Uisce Beatha
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Re: is .1-.2 fouls / game statistically significant ?
« Reply #2 on: May 02, 2007, 09:09:01 AM »
Standard deviation of .5 due to Joey Crawford doing Spurs games.

Toss it.
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Aske
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Re: is .1-.2 fouls / game statistically significant ?
« Reply #3 on: May 02, 2007, 09:22:09 AM »
Quote from: Uisce Beatha on May 02, 2007, 09:09:01 AM
Standard deviation of .5 due to Joey Crawford doing Spurs games.

Toss it.

 Rolling
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Russia has invaded a sovereign neighboring state and threatens a democratic government elected by its people. Such an action is unacceptable in the 21st century.
--  Chimpy McFlightsuit, CEO of Bu$hco Industries of 'Merka
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